Someone wrote in [personal profile] shipitfish 2006-12-22 03:13 am (UTC)

A very simple answer

To make things *totally* clear.

If after removing straights and flushes, if hand X beats hand Y under normal poker rules, the hand Y beats hand X under razz.

There should *never* be a case where one hand wins over another in both normal poker rules and razz (after removing straights and flushes).

It's as simple as that.

Therefore, 6s full of 5s loses 4s full of 8s in razz and likewise by the same logic 6s and 5s beat 4s and 8s in razz.

4s and 8s should definately *NOT* beat 6s and 5s in both 7-card stud and razz. If one hand wins in 7-card stud, the other hand wins in razz. It is that simple.

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